Could anyone please take this diagnosis/medical terms and make them laymen's terms please?

Hi, I'm a 33 year old female though at the time of this principal diagnosis I was 26. I recently received some early paperwork I had never seen before and was hoping someone could tell me what this means as a layperson. Thanking you greatly for any help :) (ps sorry it's so long) Principal Diagnosis C-spine non-displaced C7 spinous process # with interspinous ligament sprain Small disc bulge a t C5-6 nil significant canal narrowing. T/L spine L3 burst # with ALL and ligamentum flavum tears, retropulsion fragments and 80% narrowing i n the central canal \- OT 26th Decompressive laminectomy and L1-5 pedicle screw fixation. Disc material present in R psoas. L2 burst # with 20% loss of hight, minimal retropulsion, no central canal compromise. Transverse process #s R L2, bilateral L3/L4, R L 5 Chest non displaced sternal # non-displaced R8-10th anterior rib # s with small R pneumothorax non-displaced L6-8th anterior rib #s. Abdo perfusion anomaly in subcapsular segment 5 . no free fluid. Pelvis pelvic vertical shear injury bilateral sacral ala #s, more extensive o n R. adjacent pre-sacral haematoma - IR reviewed bilateral multisite inferior pubic rami #s. medial L superior pubic ramus # Lower limbs comminuted R prox femoral shaft fracture L pilon # and fibular # bilateral comminuted calcaneal # s R talus #